it is countable , however not countably infinite.
Because if x is the cardinality of a countably infinte set,
methinks that x^2 is the cardinality of richie's set.
However as x->INFINITY we say that x =x^2 then we have
that richie's set is countably infinite.
PS :- I was totally "d-uh???" abt countably infinite sets.
I googled up the defn. of countably infinite and I am
barking based on this site.....
http://www.mathwords.com/c/countably_infinite.htm
bye guys....
Lotta wrk 2B done.
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